Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Integrated Circuits
1) Which among the following is/are the feature/s characteristic/s of an integrated op-amp?
a. Small size
b. High reliability
c. Low cost & less power consumption
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
2) In a typical op-amp, which stage is supposed to be a dual-input unbalanced output or single-ended output differential amplifier?
a. Input stage
b. Intermediate stage
c. Output stage
d. Level shifting stage
ANSWER: Intermediate stage
3) In differential mode of op-amp, if output voltage is equal to the difference between outputs of individual transistors, its amplitude will be _______the amplitude of signal voltage yielded at collector to ground.
a. twice
b. thrice
c. four times
d. one-fourth times
ANSWER: twice
4) In a differential amplifier, the configuration is said to be an ‘unbalanced output’, if ________
a. Output voltage is measured between two collectors
b. Output is measured with respect to ground
c. Two input signals are used
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Output is measured with respect to ground
5) Input offset current is basically defined as the algebraic ______ the base current of two transistors.
a. sum of
b. difference between
c. product of
d. division of
ANSWER: difference between
6) Unipolar belongs to ________technology/ies of integrated circuits.
a. Hybrid
b. Monolithic
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Monolithic
7) Which among the following belong to the category of bipolar technology?
A. JFET
B. MOSFET
C. P-N junction isolation
D. Di-electric isolation
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. C & D
d. A & D
ANSWER: C & D
8) Which op-amp technology/ies exhibit/s low current sourcing/ sinking capacity?
a. Bipolar op-amp
b. CMOS op-amp
c. BICMOS op-amp
d. All of the above
ANSWER: CMOS op-amp
9) How many stages are involved in bipolar op-amp?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
ANSWER: 3
10) In op-amps, which type of noise occurs due to discrete flow of current in the device?
a. Shot noise
b. Burst noise
c. Thermal noise
d. Flicker noise
ANSWER: Shot noise
11) Which among the following is a nonlinear application of op-amp?
a. V to I converter
b. Comparator
c. Precision rectifier
d. Instrumentation amplifier
ANSWER: Precision rectifier
12) What is the feedback factor of voltage follower circuit?
a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Infinity
d. Between zero & one
ANSWER: Unity
13) For non-inverting adder, which theorem is applicable to determine the expression for output voltage?
a. Thevenin’s
b. Norton’s
c. Miller’s
d. Superposition
ANSWER: Superposition
14) Which among the following is/are the requirement/s of an instrumentation amplifier?
a. High slew rate
b. High input resistance
c. High CMRR
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
15) For a temperature controller circuit comprising instrumentation amplifier, which among the following is adopted as a temperature sensor?
a. Thermistor
b. Sensistor
c. Thyristor
d. Thermocouple
ANSWER: Thermistor
16) Which parameter/s is/are used to indicate the speed of a comparator?
a. Response Time
b. Propagation Delay
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
17) Basically, response time is defined as the time acquired by the comparator to accomplish ______of its transition corresponding to the voltage step at the input.
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 100%
ANSWER: 50%
18) For an ideal comparator, what should be the value of the response time?
a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Infinite
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: Zero
19) Zero crossing detector circuit plays a crucial role in conversion of input sine wave into a perfect _________at its output.
a. triangular wave
b. square wave
c. saw-tooth wave
d. pulse wave
ANSWER: square wave
20) For reducing the effects of input offset in comparator, what would be the possible value of input offset voltage?
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Low
21) In weighted resistor DAC, how many resistor/s per bit is/are required?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
ANSWER: One
22) In DAC, resolution increases with the _________ in number of bits.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Constant
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Increase
23) Which among the following characteristics of D/A converter occur/s due to resistor and semiconductor aging?
a. Speed
b. Settling time
c. Long term drift
d. Supply rejection
ANSWER: Long term drift
24) In DACs, which type of error/s specify/ies the amount by which the actual output of DAC differ from ideal straight line transfer characteristics?
a. Linearity error
b. Offset error
c. Gain error
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Linearity error
25) Offset error is basically defined as the non-zero level of analog output especially when all the digital inputs are ____.
a. 0
b. 1
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: 0
26) Basically, PLL is used to lock _______
a. Its output frequency
b. Phase to the frequency
c. Phase of the input signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
27) In communication circuits, PLL is currently applicable for __________
a. Demodulation applications
b. Tracking a carrier or synchronizing signal
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
28) In the locked state of PLL, the phase error between the input & output is _________.
a. Maximum
b. Moderate
c. Minimum
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Minimum
29) Once the phase is locked, the PLL tracks the variation in the input frequency. This indicates that _____
a. Output frequency changes by same amount as that of input frequency
b. Output frequency does not change as that of input frequency
c. There is no relation between input & output frequencies
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Output frequency changes by same amount as that of input frequency
30) In PLL, the capture range is always _________the lock range.
a. Greater than
b. Equal to
c. Less than
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Less than
31) Which among the following factors affect/s the output voltage of a regulated power supply?
a. Load current
b. Input voltage
c. Temperature
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
32) Which performance parameter of a regulator is defined as the change in regulated load voltage due to variation in line voltage in a specified range at a constant load current?
a. Load regulation
b. Line regulation
c. Temperature stability factor
d. Ripple rejection
ANSWER: Line regulation
33) The % load regulation of a power supply should be ideally ________ & practically _______.
a. zero, small
b. small, zero
c. zero, large
d. large, zero
ANSWER: zero, small
34) Switching regulators are series type regulators, which has ______ power dissipation & ______ efficiency.
a. increased, increased
b. increased, reduced
c. reduced, increased
d. reduced, reduced
ANSWER: reduced, increased
35) In a linear IC voltage regulator, series pass transistor always operates in ______ region.
a. Active
b. Saturation
c. Cut-off
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Active
36) Which among the following compression techniques is/are intended for still images?
a. JPEG
b. H.263
c. MPEG
d. All of the above
ANSWER: JPEG
37) Which lossy method for audio compression is responsible for encoding the difference between two consecutive samples?
a. Silence Compression
b. Linear Predictive Coding (LPC)
c. Adaptive Differential Pulse Code modulation (ADPCM)
d. Code Excited Linear Predictor (CELP)
ANSWER: Adaptive Differential Pulse Code modulation (ADPCM)
38) Which coding technique/s exhibit/s the usability of fixed length codes?
a. Lempel Ziv
b. Huffman
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Lempel Ziv
39) Which among the following is used to construct the binary code that satisfies the prefix condition?
a. Information Rate
b. Noiseless Channel
c. Channel Coding Theorem
d. Kraft Inequality
ANSWER: Kraft Inequality
40) Information rate basically gives an idea about the generated information per _____ by source.
a. Second
b. Minute
c. Hour
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Second
41) Which approach plays a cardinal role in supporting the results obtained regarding the information capacity theorem?
a. Line Packing
b. Volume Packing
c. Sphere Packing
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Sphere Packing
42) In sphere packing, where is the received code vector with added noise located?
a. Inside the sphere
b. Outside the sphere
c. On the boundary (circumference) of sphere
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Inside the sphere
43) If a noiseless channel bandlimited to 5 kHz is sampled every 1msec, what will be the value of sampling frequency?
a. 250 samples/sec
b. 500 samples/sec
c. 800 samples/sec
d. 1000 samples/sec
ANSWER: 1000 samples/sec
44) Assuming that the channel is noiseless, if TV channels are 8 kHz wide with the bits/sample = 3Hz and signalling rate = 16 x 106 samples/second, then what would be the value of data rate?
a. 16 Mbps
b. 24 Mbps
c. 48 Mbps
d. 64 Mbps
ANSWER: 48 Mbps
45) On which factor/s do/does the channel capacity depend/s in the communication system?
a. Bandwidth
b. Signal to Noise Ratio
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
46) Which amount the following is capable of correcting any combination of three or fewer errors random errors in a block of 23 bits?
a. Hamming codes
b. Interleaved code
c. Repetition codes
d. Golay code
ANSWER: Golay code
47) For a (6,4) block code where n = 6, k = 4 and dmin = 3, how many errors can be corrected by this code?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
ANSWER: 1
48) In Repetition Code, how many information bit/s is/are present in addition to n-1 parity bits?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Eight
ANSWER: One
49) On which factor/s do/does the error probability depend/s after decoding?
a. Number of error vectors
b. Error probability of symbol transmission
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
50) Which buffer size is required by the interleaved codes at the transmitter for the accumulation of λ code words?
a. Small
b. Medium
c. Large
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Large
51) For the generation of a cyclic code, the generator polynomial should be the factor of _____
a. xn + 1
b. xn – 1
c. xn /2
d. x2n/3
ANSWER: xn + 1
52) Consider the assertions related to decoding process of cyclic code. Which among the following is a correct sequence of steps necessary for the correction of errors?
A. Syndrome determination after the division of r(x) & g(x)
B. Addition of error pattern to received code word
C. Selection of error pattern corresponding to the syndrome
D. Preparation of table comprising error patterns and syndromes
a. A, B, C, D
b. B, A, D, C
c. C, B, D, A
d. D, A, C, B
ANSWER: D, A, C, B
53) Which among the below stated logical circuits are present in encoder and decoder used for the implementation of cyclic codes?
A. Shift Registers
B. Modulo-2 Adders
C. Counters
D. Multiplexers
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
54) Which among the following error detecting technique is supposed to be parity bit associated with character code?
a. LRC
b. VRC
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: VRC
55) In register contents at decoder, the syndrome register consists of syndrome after all bits of received vector are clocked into the decoder ________.
a. Input
b. Output
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Input
56) If the errors are corrected at _______end/s, it is known as ‘Forward Error Correction’ (FEC).
a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Receiver
57) In Frame Check Sequence (FCS), which code is used if character length is 6 bit and generates 12 bit parity check bits?
a. CRC-12
b. CRC-16
c. CRC-32
d. CRC-CCITT
ANSWER: CRC-12
58) Decoding of RS code comprises the determination of error _______
A. position
B. magnitude
C. angle
D. frequency
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
59) In RS code, the length is ____less than number of symbols in symbol set (q).
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Infinite
ANSWER: One
60) In Minimum Distance Separable (MDS) codes, the minimum distance is one more than the number of _________.
a. Information bits
b. Symbol bits
c. Parity check bits
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Parity check bits
61) In Trellis diagram, what do/does the horizontal axis represent/s?
a. Continuous time
b. Discrete time
c. Sampled time
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Discrete time
62) For the 4 states of an encoder on vertical axis of Trellis diagram, what do/does the solid line indicate/s?
a. ‘0’ input
b. ‘1’ input
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: ‘0’ input
63) Which decoding method involves the evaluation by means of Fano Algorithm?
a. Maximum Likelihood Decoding
b. Sequential Decoding
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Sequential Decoding
64) For a received sequence of 6 bits, which decoding mechanism deals with the selection of best correlated sequence especially by correlating the received sequence and all permissible sequences?
a. Soft Decision Decoding
b. Hard Decision Decoding
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Soft Decision Decoding
65) To obtain the transfer function of a convolutional code, the splitting of all-zero state takes place into ___
A. starting state
B. first return to all-zero state
C. in-between state
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A & B
66) The distance between each symbol in given sequence and reference sequence is known as _______.
a. Euclidean Distance
b. Distance between sequences
c. Manmattan Distance
d. Hamming Distance
ANSWER: Distance between sequences
67) dfree is defined as the Euclidean distance of coded signal in terms of _________ possible distance between all allowed sequences.
a. smallest
b. largest
c. average
d. constant
ANSWER: smallest
68) For designing trellis code, the emphasis must be on maximizing __________
a. Euclidean distance between code vectors
b. Hamming distance of error correcting codes
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Euclidean distance between code vectors
69) For designing a communication system, which among the following parameters should be maximum?
A. Transmission rate
B. Received signal-to-noise ratio
C. Error probability
D. Bandwidth requirement
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
70) For fixed symbol rate, increase in bits/symbol ultimately improves rb/B bits/s/Hz & hence, regarded as _____.
a. Power efficiency
b. Spectral efficiency
c. Transmission efficiency
d. Modulation efficiency
ANSWER: Spectral efficiency
